Quote:
Originally Posted by suburbanite
I agree. The U.S. is an easier example because the dysfunctions are laid bare so much more. You hear people saying there is no systemic racism because MLK and others fought to get rid of it, and now legally no black person can be denied their rights, jobs, opportunities etc. I think there's an important difference between systemic and systematic though. Systematic racism in the sense of Jim Crow laws may be lone gone, but underlying dysfunctions within the system (systemic) undoubtedly still exist. I'm thinking of things like the fact that black people have traditionally been denied the two greatest wealth-building/social mobility tools in American society, that being access to credit and home equity appreciation. Middle-class black families in Detroit who work at the same auto plant and earn the same income as their white coworkers, but whose homes have gained almost no value or potentially even lost it because they're located in black neighbourhoods. I'm not talking about the bombed-out inner city even. Somewhere like this that looks like it could be middle class neighbourhood in Hamilton where homes go for $400,000, but instead they're worth $150,000 and have appreciated like 20% since the owner bought it decades ago:
You could say that they have the freedom to move wherever they like, but people don't like to feel like outsiders and have familial and cultural roots in certain places. I would argue that a black person's wealth lagging behind their peers solely because they want to live in the community where they grew up, where their friends and family are, could be a victim of systemic racism. There's no sinister plot at the highest levels of government to keep these asset price and their owner's depressed, it's just a symptom of dysfunction in the system that disproportionately effects people of a certain group.
I should've typed this out about First Nations in Canada but I was browsing house prices across Detroit and this was the first thing that came to mind.
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One could argue that these people are trying to have it both ways though.
Let's stick to whites for the sake of this example.
Imagine Industrial Chicago (or Detroit, or Hamilton) a century ago. Imagine everyone's white.
A bunch of those white people are Polish immigrants. They like to live among themselves. So there's a Polish neighborhood, where all the signs are in Polish, the grocery stores only bother selling Polish food and ingredients, the only churches are RC with services unilingually in Polish, the only language you ever hear on the streets is Polish, etc.
They enjoy that. But then, people who don't speak Polish and/or wouldn't feel comfortable living in a semi-alien environment are not really interested in renting or buying property in that particular neighborhood, not when there are so many more typical Anglo-American flavored neighborhoods available in various areas of the city.
In a normal open-to-all neighborhood, whenever a property comes up for sale, the pool of potential buyers for it is the entirety of Chicago.
In the Polish neighborhood, whenever a property is for sale, the pool of potential buyers is Chicago's fluent-in-Polish ethnic Poles - a much smaller pool.
So property values are markedly lower.
So the Polish-speaking ethnic Poles, who enjoy their "Little Warsaw" neighborhood in Chicago, are at the same time complaining that the property values in it aren't anywhere near as high as they are in some other comparable neighborhoods.
Now, in this example, what would you recommend exactly? And in which proportions do you assign blame?