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Originally Posted by SHiRO
How is that relevant? Los Angeles also hosted twice and I don't see you bitching about that.
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Actually, I have, numerous times in the LA thread in this very subforum. I also alluded to it at post #50.
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Also irrelevant, but if you want to make a point of it there are dozens of countries that haven't hosted yet so why shouldn't those get a chance before the US?
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I will again refer you to post #50.
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And to Latin language speakers "America" refers to North and South America both and if they don't get to decide what is "America" to you, you sure as hell don't get to decide what "Europe" is to Europeans (or Russians).
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Oh, get over yourself. I was not saying any definition was right or wrong, I was merely stating the North American outlook. The Russians have to be on at least one continent, and the bulk of the population does lie west of the artificial Europe-Asia border.
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Not by a long shot. Also you seems to be oblivious to the fact that at the time many of these cities hosted the games, Europe had 1/4 of the world's population and most significant cities. There were hardly any countries at the time that were even able to host the Olympics outside Europe. Not to mention that the Olympics are European in origen.
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Somewhat true pre-war (but not fully), but definitely not true post-war. The Olympics may be European in origin but they are supposed to represent the world.
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New York, Chicago and?...
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Washington, San Francisco, Boston, Houston, Dallas, Philadelphia, Miami, and San Diego.
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You are starting to sound like a broken record, but at least it is clear who here is biased (it aint the IOC)...
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I'm not the only one with this opinion. In fact, I don't recall really discussing the Eurocentrism of the IOC before this thread and would be saying the exact same thing if the tables were turned, like it is in the case of Los Angeles. But please, tell me more...